Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 01:06

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Costco makes key moves to protect prices from tariffs - TheStreet
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Since the Brits can't steer their oil tanker, what makes them think they can take on Russia?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.